What is maximum terminal loss on a five-point call credit spread paying one point?
Reveal the worked answer
400 per 100-unit spread before costs.
Width minus credit, with common-expiry settlement assumptions.
When does a return-to-value idea fit the auction?
Read first: Read a contract and its premium, Rights, obligations and expiration, Defined payoff risk is not margin, Read the whole multi-leg ticket
Mean reversion is a hypothesis that an excursion will return toward a reference such as a prior balance, VWAP or volume POC. The hypothesis needs a rejection mechanism and a time horizon, not just a large recent move.
A market can become more expensive and remain accepted there. An extreme is not automatically an entry.
A debit spread can target a measured return, while a credit spread can express that an extension will not hold. The same directional thought creates different payoff, IV and time exposures in those structures.
A reference such as VWAP is an average from a declared window, not fundamental value or a price the market owes you.
Mark the level before the test. Look for a failed extension and a defined invalidation, then compare executable option prices with the expected target and time. Avoid fading genuine acceptance merely because an indicator is stretched.
Study the ticket and stress a continued trend, including assignment and expiry mechanics for short legs.
Terminal examples use simultaneous intrinsic realization of all stated legs, before unspecified costs. Actual American exercise, assignment, early liquidation and broker handling can create different interim cash needs. These fictional comparisons are education, not orders or personalized investment advice.
Fictional spot moves from a balanced 100 to 103, fails to hold above a premarked 102 boundary and returns to 101.50. A bearish return-to-100 thesis is now different from selling the first print at 103.
Suppose a 105/110 call credit spread pays 1.00. At common expiry it earns at most 100 and can lose 400 per 100-unit spread before costs. The favorable technical hypothesis does not eliminate that asymmetry. The graph shows this exact terminal position.
Vertical: Call-credit spread terminal P/L (USD)
Horizontal: Underlying at common expiry (USD)
| Underlying at common expiry (USD) | Fictional example |
|---|---|
| 95 | 100 |
| 96 | 100 |
| 97 | 100 |
| 98 | 100 |
| 99 | 100 |
| 100 | 100 |
| 101 | 100 |
| 102 | 100 |
| 103 | 100 |
| 104 | 100 |
| 105 | 100 |
| 106 | 0 |
| 107 | -100 |
| 108 | -200 |
| 109 | -300 |
| 110 | -400 |
| 111 | -400 |
| 112 | -400 |
| 113 | -400 |
| 114 | -400 |
| 115 | -400 |
A trend keeps accepting higher prices while the trader repeatedly sells calls on the theory that price is too high. A new credit does not fix an invalidated auction thesis.
Try the question before revealing its answer. These are reading checks, not trading certification or a site completion record.
400 per 100-unit spread before costs.
Width minus credit, with common-expiry settlement assumptions.
A trend keeps accepting higher prices while the trader repeatedly sells calls on the theory that price is too high. A new credit does not fix an invalidated auction thesis.
Explain this risk before treating the example as a decision rule. A correct calculation does not guarantee a favorable market outcome.
Return to the question: When does a return-to-value idea fit the auction? State the observed facts, the assumptions and the failure condition separately.
External references support definitions and conventions. Worked scenarios and prose are original. No current quotes or dealer inventory are claimed.
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