What is equal-weight basket volatility with two20%-vol assets at zero correlation?
Reveal the worked answer
Approximately14.142%.
Square-root the variance; do not average volatilities directly.
Why can index volatility differ from component volatility?
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An index aggregates individual returns and their co-movement. Even volatile components can form a less volatile basket when they do not move together. Dispersion strategies compare index and component option exposures, but implementation is much more complex than this identity.
Correlation can rise during stress exactly when diversification is most needed.
For two assets, basket variance includes weighted individual variances plus twice the weighted covariance. Actual index weights, differing vols, rebalancing and more constituents matter.
An institutional dispersion trade is not simply 'buy stocks and short the index.' It concerns volatility exposures with hedge, weighting, surface and jump risks.
Understand the variance relationship before discussing positions. Use variance-consistent weights and compare implied versus realized quantities. Explain correlation and constituent-event risks.
A theoretical covariance calculation is not an executable strategy payoff or a promise of diversification through a gap.
These are complete fictional reading examples, not live opportunities. Terminal identities assume the stated common settlement. Multi-expiry values require a surviving-leg model. Costs, assignment and financing can alter realized outcomes; a mathematical bound alone does not guarantee the same operational loss path.
Two fictional equal-weight assets each have 20% annual volatility. With correlation 0, basket variance is .5²×.2²+.5²×.2²=.02, giving 14.142% volatility. With correlation 1, covariance raises volatility to20%.
The graph varies correlation with fixed weights and constituent vols. It illustrates the relationship, not a forecast or a live dispersion opportunity.
Vertical: Basket annualized volatility (%)
Horizontal: Correlation assumption
| Correlation assumption | Fictional example |
|---|---|
| -0.5 | 10 |
| 0 | 14.1421 |
| 0.25 | 15.8114 |
| 0.5 | 17.3205 |
| 0.75 | 18.7083 |
| 1 | 20 |
A trader ignores changing weights or assumes low historical correlation persists. One constituent's gap can also dominate a component-option book.
Try the question before revealing its answer. These are reading checks, not trading certification or a site completion record.
Approximately14.142%.
Square-root the variance; do not average volatilities directly.
A trader ignores changing weights or assumes low historical correlation persists. One constituent's gap can also dominate a component-option book.
Explain this risk before treating the example as a decision rule. A correct calculation does not guarantee a favorable market outcome.
Return to the question: Why can index volatility differ from component volatility? State the observed facts, the assumptions and the failure condition separately.
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